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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

14.06.2025 02:17

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

Why do atheists not love a G-d that does not stop punishing them harder and harder in this world and the next until they surrender to Him?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

How do you say "have fun" in French?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Have you ever been forced to dress like a girl?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.